PRINCE 2 Foundation Sample Paper 2

Sample Paper - 2

The Foundation Examination


Multiple Choice

1-hour paper




Instructions

1. All 75 questions should be attempted.

2. 5 of the 75 questions are under trial and will not contribute to your overall score. There is no indication of which questions are under trial.

3. All answers are to be marked on the answer sheet provided.

4. Please use a pencil and NOT ink to mark your answers on the answer sheet provided. There is only one correct answer per question.

5. You have 1 hour for this paper.

6. You must get 35 or more correct to pass.





Candidate Number: .....................................…











1. Which does NOT reflect the PRINCE2 principle of continued business justification?

a. There must be a justifiable reason for starting a project
b. The business justification drives decision making
c. If a project is no longer forecast to deliver a financial benefit, it should be stopped.
d. If a project can no longer be justified, it should be stopped

2. Identify the missing words in the following sentence. The Starting up a Project process is triggered when a [? ] is available.

a. project Business Case
b. project mandate
c. Stage Plan
d. Work Package

3. What do acceptance criteria identify?

a. The approach that will be used to prove whether the project's products have been completed
b. A measureable improvement resulting from a project outcome
c. The measureable definitions of the attributes for a set of products to be acceptable to key stakeholders
d. The project controls set up during the process Initiating a Project

4. Which is a typical core activity within a configuration management procedure?

a. Assessment
b. Communication
c. Quality control
d. Status accounting

5. Which is a risk cause?

a. The actions required to resolve a risk
b. The impact that a risk would have on a project if it materializes
c. The likelihood of a risk occurring
d. The source of a risk




6. Which statement describes the responsibilities of a risk actionee?

a. Identifying risks to the project that might occur in their department
b. Owning and authorizing the use of the risk budget to fund risk responses
c. Managing, monitoring and controlling of all aspects of an assigned risk
d. Carrying out a risk response action to respond to a particular risk


7. Which is a purpose of the Initiating a Project process?

a. Produce a Stage Plan for each stage of a multi-stage project
b. Enable the Project Board to decide whether it is worthwhile to initiate a project
c. Provide a fixed point at which acceptance for the project product is confirmed
d. Enable an organization to understand the work that needs to be done to deliver the project's products

8. Identify the missing words in the following sentence. The Managing a Stage Boundary process should be executed [?] a management stage.

a. when a Stage Plan has been prepared for
b. at the beginning of
c. when all the technical stages have been completed within
d. at, or close to the end of,





















9. During the Managing a Stage Boundary process, what is reviewed and updated to provide the information needed by the Project Board for assessing the continuing viability of the project?

a. Benefits Review Plan
b. Product Status Account
c. Business Case
d. Project Plan

10. What product provides details about the latest version numbers of a project’s products?

a. Project Product Description
b. Product Status Account
c. Project Plan
d. Issue Register

11. Which characteristic distinguishes a project from regular business operations?

a. Produces benefits
b. Introduces business change
c. Manages stakeholders
d. Incurs cost

12. What is the PRINCE2 definition of a project?

a. The mechanism used to monitor and compare actual achievements against those planned
b. A temporary organization that is created for the purpose of delivering business products
c. A sequence of activities to manage product creation
d. Defined and agreed roles and responsibilities within an organization structure that engages the business, user and supplier stakeholder interests




















13. Which two roles are linked by the Managing Product Delivery process?

a. Corporate or programme management and Project Board
b. Project Board and Project Manager
c. Project Manager and Team Manager
d. Team Manager and external supplier



14. Identify the missing word in the following sentence. A project's [ ? ] is any of the project's specialist products.

a. benefit
b. dis-benefit
c. outcome
d. output


15. Which is a purpose of the Controlling a Stage process?

a. Assign work to be done and take corrective action to ensure that the stage remains within tolerance
b. Provide a fixed reference point at which acceptance for the project product is confirmed
c. Enable the Project Board to be provided with sufficient information to authorize the next stage
d. Enable the organization to understand the work that needs to be done to deliver the project's products


16. What product identifies the management stages and other major control points in a project?

a. Business Case
b. Project Plan
c. Work Package
d. Project Brief







17. Which of the following would be recorded in an Issue Register?

1. Problems that require formal management
2. Risks with high probability
3. Suggested improvements to baselined products
4. Requested additions to scope

a. 1, 2, 3
b. 1, 2, 4
c. 1, 3, 4
d. 2, 3, 4

18. Which of the following describe a purpose of the Benefits Review Plan?

1. Identifies when measurement of the achievement of the project's benefits can be made
2. Used during the Closing a Project process to define any post-project benefits reviews that are required
3. Includes the activities required to find out how the products perform when in operational use
4. Defines the justification for undertaking the project

a. 1, 2, 3
b. 1, 2, 4
c. 1, 3, 4
d. 2, 3, 4


19. In which product does a Project Manager define the time and cost tolerances for the work to be done by a Team Manager?

a. Product Description
b. Team Plan
c. Work Package
d. Stage Plan















20. Which is a purpose of an End Stage Report?

a. Support the Project Board's decision on what action to take next
b. Summarize how the project performed against the version of the Project Initiation Documentation used to authorize it
c. Provide the detailed analysis of a deviation and offer options for the way to proceed
d. Provide a plan for the next stage of the project

21. Which step in the issue and change control procedure evaluates options to respond to an Issue that is being managed formally?

a. Capture
b. Examine
c. Propose
d. Decide


22. What process is used by the Project Board to respond to an Exception Report?

a. Controlling a Stage
b. Managing a Stage Boundary
c. Managing Product Delivery
d. Directing a Project

23. Which action should be taken within the Closing a Project process to ensure benefits that still need to be realized are measured?

a. Prevent closure of a project until all benefits are realized
b. Update a Benefits Review Plan with the dates of post-project benefits reviews
c. Create a follow-on action recommendation for each benefit yet to be measured
d. Make the role of Project Manager responsible for the measurement of benefits once a project is closed


















24. Which is a purpose of the Managing a Stage Boundary process?

a. Provide the Project Board with sufficient information for approving the next stage
b. Approve the next Stage Plan
c. Review and close any risks and issues identified during the previous stage
d. Control the link between the Project Manager and the Team Manager(s)


25. Which process covers the work done by external suppliers who may NOT be using PRINCE2?

a. Closing a Project
b. Managing a Stage Boundary
c. Managing Product Delivery
d. Directing a Project

26. Which role does NOT set tolerances?

a. Corporate or programme management
b. Project Board
c. Change Authority
d. Project Manager

27. What process provides progress information on a team's work to the Project Manager?

a. Controlling a Stage
b. Directing a Project
c. Managing a Stage Boundary
d. Managing Product Delivery


28. Which statement is true for project stakeholders?

a. All stakeholders must be identified at the start of the project
b. Stakeholders are NOT members of the Project Board
c. All stakeholders are external to the corporate organization
d. All three primary categories of stakeholder have their interests represented by the Project Board










29. Which product describes the roles and responsibilities for achieving the effective management of anticipated threats and opportunities in a project?

a. Quality Management Strategy
b. Risk Management Strategy
c. Communication Management Strategy
d. Configuration Management Strategy

30. Which is a purpose of a Project Brief?

a. Enable the assembly of the project mandate
b. Describe the reporting requirements of the various layers of management involved with the project
c. Describe how changes to products will be controlled
d. Provide a solid basis for the initiation of the project

31. What is the first task of product-based planning?

a. Produce the Initiation Stage Plan
b. Write the Project Product Description
c. Identify dependencies
d. Create the product breakdown structure

32. Which product is used by the Project Manager to authorize work?

a. Team Plan
b. Stage Plan
c. Work Package
d. Product Description

33. Which of the following are PRINCE2 principles?

1. Continued business justification
2. Defined roles and responsibilities
3. Customer/supplier environment
4. Learn from experience

a. 1, 2, 3
b. 1, 2, 4
c. 1, 3, 4
d. 2, 3, 4









34. Which is a purpose of quality planning?

a. Define the structure of the project management team
b. Detail the acceptance criteria, in order for the Project Board to agree the level of quality expected of the project's product
c. Document approval records for those project products that have met their quality criteria
d. Produce the Project Plan with resource and schedule information

35. Which is NOT a recommended quality review team role?

a. Administrator
b. Chair
c. Producer
d. Reviewer

36. Why is it crucial that the Project Product Description clearly defines acceptance methods?

a. Enables Project Assurance to authorize quality activities
b. Defines how all project products will be reviewed and approved
c. Defines how it will be proven that the completed project product meets the customer's expectations
d. Provides confirmation that all project products have met their quality criteria



37. Which is the Change Authority role permitted to authorize?

a. Risks to the project
b. Adjustments to the limits on the change budget
c. Changes to stage tolerance
d. Changes to the project that do not exceed a defined budget






38. Which aspect of project performance must be managed to avoid misunderstandings on what the project is to deliver?

a. Timescale
b. Scope
c. Risk
d. Costs


39. Which does the Change theme consider a prerequisite for effective issue and change control?

a. Configuration management system
b. Manage by exception
c. Quality planning
d. Information needs for stakeholders


40. What product is used to maintain a record of those who have an interest in the project and their information requirements?

a. Project Plan
b. Communication Management Strategy
c. Project Brief
d. Project Product Description

41. If Work Package tolerance is forecast to be exceeded, to whom should the Team Manager report?

a. Corporate management
b. Project Board
c. Project Assurance
d. Project Manager

42. Which is NOT undertaken during the Initiating a Project process?

a. Review why the project is needed
b. Identify if the project is sufficiently aligned with corporate objectives
c. Show how the outcome is to be achieved
d. Appoint an Executive and Project Manager




43. Which describes risk appetite?

a. An organization's unique attitude towards risk-taking
b. The risks to the expected benefits
c. A common set of risk categories, risk scales and evaluation techniques
d. The budget set aside for potential changes to the scope of the project

44. Which is a type of issue?

a. A lesson
b. A request for change
c. An Exception Report
d. A risk with an estimated high impact

45. What product would enable the Project Manager to review how a Work Package is performing against its cost tolerance?

a. Configuration Item Record
b. Quality Register
c. Highlight Report
d. Checkpoint Report


46. Identify the missing word(s) in the following sentence. PRINCE2 recommends three levels of [?] to reflect the needs of the different levels of management involved in a project.

a. Management strategies
b. Plan
c. Stakeholder interests
d. Time-driven controls



47. Which is NOT a purpose of the Directing a Project process?

a. Enable the Project Board to be accountable for a project's success by making key decisions
b. Enable the Project Board to authorize Work Packages
c. Enable the Project Board to delegate day-to-day management of a project to its Project Manager
d. Enable the Project Board to exercise overall control of a project












48. Which theme defines the accountability for realization of the project's benefits?

a. Plans
b. Progress
c. Organization
d. Quality

49. Which role is part of the Project Board?

a. Corporate or programme management
b. Risk owner
c. Project Manager
d. Senior Supplier

50. Which risk response type is appropriate to respond to a threat?

a. Exploit
b. Enhance
c. Reject
d. Transfer

51. Which of the following is NOT identified in a Product Description?

a. The quality specification to which a product must be produced
b. The purpose a product must fulfill
c. The skills required to undertake quality control of a product
d. The time and cost tolerances for the creation of a product


52. Identify the missing words in the following sentence. At the end of a stage, the [ ? ] should be used to check whether there is a requirement to send copies of the End Stage Report to external interested parties.

a. Stage Plan
b. Communication Management Strategy
c. Follow-on action recommendations
d. Quality Management Strategy











53. Which theme provides the controls to escalate any forecast beyond tolerance to the next management level?

a. Business Case
b. Plans
c. Progress
d. Quality

54. Which provides a single source of reference that may be used by people joining a project after it has been initiated so they can quickly and easily find out how the project is being managed?

a. Project Brief
b. Project Initiation Documentation
c. Project mandate
d. Project Product Description


55. During the Initiating a Project process, which product is updated to incorporate the estimated time and costs from the Project Plan?

a. Project Product Description
b. Business Case
c. Project Brief
d. Project mandate

56. Which is a purpose of the Risk theme?

a. Establish a procedure to ensure every change is agreed by the relevant authority before it takes place
b. Establish a cost-effective procedure to identify, assess and control uncertainty
c. Establish mechanisms to control any unacceptable deviations from plan
d. Establish mechanisms to manage risks at the corporate or programme level of an organization
















57. Which is a benefit of using PRINCE2?

a. Provides a defined structure of accountability, delegation, authority and communication
b. Includes techniques for critical path analysis and earned value analysis
c. Enables a Project Manager to be accountable for the success of a project
d. Prevents any changes once the scope of a project has been agreed


58. Who carries out audits that are independent of the project?

a. Quality assurance
b. Project Assurance
c. Project Support
d. Project Manager

59. Which is a task of product-based planning?

a. Design the plan
b. Create the product flow diagram
c. Analyze the risks
d. Prepare the schedule

60. What theme establishes the mechanisms to judge whether a project is worthwhile investing in?

a. Plans
b. Business Case
c. Risk
d. Quality


61. If a project’s benefit tolerance is forecast to be exceeded, to whom should this be escalated to for a decision?
a. Senior User
b. Executive
c. Corporate/programme management
d. Senior Supplier











62. Which does the Executive need to ensure is in place before the project is initiated?

a. All Work Packages are authorized
b. An understanding of how the project will contribute to corporate objectives
c. The Project Plan has been approved
d. The Project Initiation Documentation is complete

63. Which is a purpose of the Starting up a Project process?

a. Provide information so a decision can be made as to whether a project is viable and worthwhile to initiate
b. Define the means of communication between the project and corporate or programme management
c. Define the project controls
d. Record any identified risks in the Risk Register


64. Which is a purpose of the 'Plan' step within the recommended risk management procedure?

a. Identify the roles and responsibilities for all risk management activities
b. Prepare and agree the Risk Management Strategy with the Project Board
c. Plan the Communication Management Strategy to keep stakeholders updated on the risk management activities
d. Identify possible responses to be implemented to manage a risk should it occur

65. Which describes risk impact?

a. Timeframe within which the risk might occur
b. The trigger that occurred giving rise to the risk
c. The effect of the risk on the delivery of project objectives
d. How likely the risk is to occur in a given project situation

66. What process ensures focus on the delivery of a stage's products and avoids uncontrolled change?

a. Directing a Project
b. Managing a Stage Boundary
c. Controlling a Stage
d. Starting up a Project



67. Which is a difference between management and technical stages?

a. Management stages require planning and technical stages do not
b. Technical stages can overlap and management stages cannot
c. Management stages deliver products and technical stages do not
d. Technical stages require resources and management stages do not

68. Which should be funded from a change budget?

a. The Starting up a Project process
b. A fallback plan
c. An agreed change to the scope of a project
d. A change to a plan, within allocated tolerances, due to poor estimating

69. Which is a true statement about PRINCE2 event-driven controls?

a. Event-driven controls take place at predefined periodic intervals
b. Event-driven controls are produced at the frequency defined in a Work Package
c. Event-driven controls are used for decision making
d. Checkpoint Reports are event-driven controls


70. What theme estimates the cost of delivering the project?

a. Business Case
b. Change
c. Plans
d. Progress

71. What takes place during the Closing a Project process?

a. The post-project benefits reviews are performed
b. Ownership of the project's products is transferred to the customer
c. An End Stage Report is prepared for the final stage
d. The project closure notification is reviewed and approved

72. Which is an objective of the quality review technique?

a. To provide confirmation that a product is complete and ready for approval
b. To identify solutions to defects found during the quality review meeting
c. To agree the quality criteria for the product under review
d. To enable changes to be agreed and added to a baselined product







73. Which is an objective of the Directing a Project process?

a. Review and approve a project mandate
b. Ensure corporate or programme management has an interface to the project
c. Define how risks, issues and changes will be managed
d. Obtain approval for completed products

74. Which is a purpose of the Closing a Project process?

a. Authorize the final stage of the project
b. Confirm that all benefits defined in the Business Case have been achieved
c. Recognize that objectives set out in the original Project Initiation Documentation have been achieved
d. Delegate day-to-day management of the end of the project to the Project Manager

75. Identify the missing word in the following sentence. A risk consists of the [? ] of a threat occurring and its impact.

a. outcome
b. probability
c. dis-benefit
d. proximity

Answer Key – Sample Paper -2

1	c	16	b	31	b	46	b	61	c
2	b	17	c	32	c	47	b	62	b
3	c	18	a	33	b	48	c	63	a
4	d	19	c	34	b	49	d	64	d
5	d	20	a	35	c	50	d	65	c
6	d	21	c	36	c	51	d	66	c
7	d	22	d	37	d	52	b	67	b
8	d	23	b	38	b	53	c	68	c
9	c	24	a	39	a	54	b	69	c
10	b	25	c	40	b	55	b	70	c
11	b	26	c	41	d	56	b	71	b
12	b	27	d	42	d	57	a	72	a
13	c	28	d	43	a	58	a	73	b
14	d	29	b	44	b	59	b	74	c
15	a	30	d	45	d	60	b	75	b

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